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Zoology - Section A

1.

Genetic drift is change of
1. gene frequency in same generation
2. appearance of recessive genes
3. gene frequency from one generation to next
4. None of the above

2.

Given below is the representative evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological periods.A, B, C, and D respectively are:
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ABCD
1.DinosaursThecodontsTherapsidsPelycosaurs
2.DinosaursTherapsidsThecodontsPelycosaurs
3.PelycosaursTherapsidsThecodontsDinosaurs
4.TherapsidsDinosaursPelycosaursThecodonts

3.

Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed
thereafter
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
(ii) Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infants upto
two year
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1. ii, iii
2. iii, iv
3. i, iii
4. i, ii

4.

Bt toxin is harmful to insects like:
(1) Lepidoterans (tobacco budworm, armyworms)
(2) Coleopterans (beetles)
(3) Dipterans (flies and mosquito)
(4) All are correct

5.

"Rosie" a transgenic cow known to produce a type of milk which has all the following characteristics except:
(1) Protein content of 2.4 gm/litre
(2) Has human α-lactalbumin
(3) More balance diet than normal milk for babies
(4) None of these

6.

When were family planning programmes initiated in India?
(1) 1948
(2) 1962
(3) 1959
(4) 1951

7.

The embryological support for evolution was disproved by whose keen observations?

(1) Karl Ernst Von Baer
(2) Ernst Heckel
(3) Charles Darwin
(4) Alfred Wallace

8.

Mammary lobe has not

(1) Alveoli
(2) Mammary tubules
(3) Lumen
(4) Lactiferous Duct

9.

At puberty, how many primary follicles are there in each ovary in a female?

(1) 60000-80000
(2) 120000-160000
(3) 30000-40000
(4) 12000

10.

The first meiotic division of primary oocyte is finished in

(1) Graafian Follicle
(2) Tertiary follicle
(3) Primary Follicle
(4) Randomly

11.

Which event surely leads to pregnancy

(1) Unprotected coitus
(2) Fertilization
(3) Implantation
(4) Gestation

12.

Which of the following is a physical barrier?
1. Mucus coating of urogenital tracts
2. Endothelium of blood vessels
3. Mucus coating of the auditory meatus
4. Monocytes

13.

Marijuana, hashish, charas, ganja, heroin, cocaine, datura. How many are cannabinoids?
1. 4
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6

14.

EcoRI comes from
1. Escherichia coli RY13
2. Escherichia coli RY16
3. Escherichia coli RY19
4. Escherichia coli RY12

15.

Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts
1. Between bases G and A
2. Cuts between GAATTC
3. Cuts between G and A at GAATTC
4. Both 1 and 3

16.

The partial reason of increased yield during green revolution was

(1) Use of improved crop varieties
(2) Use of better management practices
(3) Use of agro-chemicals
(4) Use of fertilisers and pesticides

17.

Bt toxin harms

(1) Beetles
(2) Bacillus
(3) Plants
(4) Bacteria

18.

Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
1. ovum into the fallopian tube
2. zygote into the fallopian tube
3. zygote into the uterus
4. embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube

19.

At the end of spermatogenesis, sperms heads become embedded in the sertoli and finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called
1. Spermiogenesis
2. Spermateliosis
3. Spermiation
4. Androgenesis

20.

Which is not a common mode of action between LNG20 and oral pill?
1. Inhibition of ovulation
2. Suppression of sperm motility and reduction of fertilizing ability of sperm
3. Alteration in quality of cervical mucus
4. Inhibition of implantation

21.

Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in a number of aspects. One of the following is however a similarity between the two
1. Growth phase is prolonged in both of them an starts before birth
2. Both give rise to non-motile gametes
3. Both produce equal number of gametes
4. Both occur inside primary sex organ

22.

In biotechnology transgenic animals are used for
I. Study of disease.
II. To obtained human protein.
III. Vaccine safety for humans.
IV. To know the carcinogenicity of any chemicals.
1. I, II, III and IV
2. III and IV only
3. I, III and IV
4. I and II only

23.

In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as :
1.Adaptive Radiation
2.Divergent Evolution
3.Cyclical Evolution
4.Convergent Evolution

24.

The exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as:

1.Bioweapon2.Biopiracy
3.Bioethics4.Biowar

25.

Which contraceptive method is highly effective but has very poor reversibility?
1. lUDs
2. Implants
3. Injectables
4. Sterilization

26.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

STI

Causative agent

1.

Gonorrhoea

Bacteria

2.

Syphilis

Bacteria

3.

HIV

Retrovirus

4.

Trichom*oniasis

Fungus

27.

Similar biological structures or sequences in different taxa are hom*ologous if they:

1.always perform the same function
2.result from convergent evolution
3.do not serve any known function
4.are derived from a common ancestor

28.

Mark the factor which does not affectHardy Weinberg equilibrium
1. Mutation
2. Sewall Wright effect
3. Random mating
4. Natural selection

29.


The conditions of the earth's atmosphere, conductive for the origin of life were
1. Presence of high temperature, CH4,NH3 and O3
2. High temperature,CH4,NH3,lightening
3. High temperature, volcanic eruption, O2,NH3
4. Volcanic eruption, CH4,NH3andO2

30.

The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, With short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaw with heavy teeth stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was
1 Cro-Magnon humans
2 Ramapithecus
3 Dryopithecus
4 Neanderthal human

31.

Which of the following diseases is related with the statement "Don't die of ignorance"?
1 Cancer
2 AIDS
3 Hepatitis
4 Gonorrhoea

32.

Cells involved in specific immune mechanism are
1 Erythrocytes
2 Lymphocytes
3 Eosinophils
4 Thrombocytes

33.

Which of the following is correct about the Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
(1) Bacteria has tumor inducing plasmid
(2) Bacteria infects all broad leaved agricultural crops
(3) Modified bacteria infects monocot plant only
(4) Both (1) & (2)

34.

The letter ‘R’ in the name of restriction endonuclease; ECoRI, denotes
(1) Genus of source
(2) Species of source
(3) Strain of source
(4) Order of discovery of source

35.

Which of the following gene was linked with native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium to construct the first recombinant DNA molecule?
(1) ADA gene
(2) Insulin gene
(3) Antibiotic resistance gene
(4) T-DNA

Zoology - Section B

36.

Which can be used as vector for transfer of DNA segment?
a. Bacterium
b. Plasmid
c. Plasmodium
d. Bacteriophage
(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) c & d
(4) b & d

37.

Neoplastic cells in malignant tumors is/are characterised by
1 Absence of contact inhibition
2 Metastasis
3 Presence of contact inhibition
4 Both (1) & (2)

38.

Which of the following is mismatched with respect to the following events which occur in the life cycle?

1 Erythrocytic schizogony : The rupture of RBCs is associated with the release of a toxicsubstance hemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and high fever
2 Gametocytes: Sexual stages develop in intestine of mosquito
3 Fertilization: Takes place in intestine/stomach of mosquito
4 Schizogony in liver cells: The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells bursting thecell and releasing merozoites into the blood

39. Cu ions released by IUDs like Multiload 375 and CuT:

1.prevent ovulation
2.suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity
3.prevent implantation
4.make cervix hostile to sperms

40. Normally, microinjection and biolistics [gene gun] are used, respectively, to transform:
1. plant cells and animal cells
2. animal cells and plant cells
3. animal cells and bacterial cells
4. plant cells and bacterial cells

41. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to :
1. Random change
2. Stabilising change
3. Directional change
4. Disruptive change

42. If alien DNA is inserted at PvuI restriction site in pBR322, then which of the following holds true for resultant host (E. coli)?

1.Non-transformants will grow on ampicillin containing medium
2.Non-recombinants will grow on ampicillin containing medium
3.Recombinants will grow on ampicillin containing medium
4.Recombinants will not grow on tetracycline containing medium

43. Assertion (A): In 1983, Eli Lilly used E.coli, as heterologous host for the production of humulin
Reason (R): Production of insulin in E.coli by genetic engineering is possible because bacterial cells can carry out the RNA splicing mechanism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) us false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true

44. State the following given statements either as true (T) or false (F) with respect to cancer.

(A)Non-ionizing radiations like X-rays and \(\gamma\)-rays cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation.
(B)MRI plays a significant role in detecting cancers of internal organs.
(C)Cellular oncogenes are inactivated under UV-rays leading to oncogenic transformation of cells.

Select an appropriate option:

(A)(B)(C)
1.FTT
2.FFT
3.FTF
4.TFF

45.

Assertion(A):In humans, all copulations cannot lead to fertilisation and pregnancy
Reason (R): Ferrtilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the ampulla

In the light of above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3.(A) is true but (R) is false
4.(A) is false but (R) is true

46. Assertion: The tests are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
Reason: The scrotum helps in maintaining low temperature of the testes necessary for spermatogenesis.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

47. There are various methods of contraception in India. Which of the following is not matched correctly w.r.t their mechanism of action?

Name of contraceptive deviceMechanismof action
1.Cervical capsBlocks the entry of sperms
through cervix
2.SaheliSelective estrogen receptor
modulator that decreases
endometrial thickness
3.Multiload-375Increases phagocytosis of
Sperms in female genital tract
4.Lippes loopIncreases thickness of endometrium
and thus chance of implantation
increasese

48.

Assertion:Polymerase chain reaction serve the purpose of early diagnosis of diseases.
Reason:PCR can detect very low concentration of a bacteria or virus, at a time when the symptoms of a disease are not yet visible, by amplification of their nucleic acid.
1.Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2.Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3.Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4.Both Assertion and Reason are false.

49. Genetic variation cannot be effectively brought about by?
1. Transduction
2. Mutation
3. Transformation
4. Amplification

50. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A:An antibody is a protein molecules made by the lymphocytes.
Reason R:An antibody binds to a specific foreign antigen and neutralizes its odd effects.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2.Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3.A is true but R is false
4.A is false but R is true
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