Botany - Section A
1.
The main difference between "Sixth Extinction" and the previous five extinctions is that the sixth extinction:
1. is mainly occurring on islands
2. is mainly affecting plants
3. is occurring at a faster rate
4. does not involve human activities
2.
Match the columns A and B:
Column I | Column II | ||
(a) | Marginal placentation | (i) | Marigold |
(b) | Axile placentation | (ii) | Dianthus |
(c) | Parietal placentation | (iii) | Argemone |
(d) | Free central placentation | (iv) | Chinarose |
(e) | Basal placentation | (v) | Pea |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | (e) | |
1. | (v) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
2. | (v) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
3. | (iv) | (iii) | (v) | (ii) | (i) |
4. | (i) | (v) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) |
3.
In which one of the following, the male and female gametophytes don't have free-living independent existence?
(1) Pteris
(2) Funaria
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Cedrus
4.
Lenticels are involved in
1. transpiration
2. gaseous exchange
3. food transport
4. photosynthesis
5.
Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free plants for micropropagation?
1. | Bark | 2. | Vascular tissue |
3. | Meristem | 4. | Node |
6.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the codon and the amino acid coded by it?
(1) UUA - valine
(2) AAA - lysine
(3) AUG - cysteine
(4) CCC - alanine
7.
Which of the following conditions represents a case of co-dominance genes?
(1) A gene expresses itself, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles.
(2) Genes that are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately, but when together interact to produce a different trait.
(3) Alleles, both of which interact to produce a trait, which may or may not resemble either of the parental types.
(4) Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in a heterozygous condition.
8.
The taxon which includes related species is
(1) class
(2) order
(3) family
(4) genus
9.
In callus culture, shoots can be included by the supply of
1. | auxin and no cytokinin |
2. | higher concentration of auxin and lower concentration of cytokinin |
3. | Higher concentration of cytokinin and lower concentration of auxin |
4. | Both auxin and cytokinin in equal amounts |
10.
Recessive character is expressed in
(1) F0
(2) F1
(3) F2
(4) Never expressed.
11.
The mapping of genes on chromosome was attempted by
(1) T. H. Morgan
(2) Walter Sutton
(3) Alfred Sturtevant
(4) Henking
12.
Temperature will affect which process more sensitively?
a. Dark process
b. Non Cyclic Process
c. Cyclic Process
d. Splitting of water
13.
Bark that is formed early in season is called __________ bark.
(1) Hard
(2) Soft
(3) Turbid
(4) Lenticels
14.
The function of lenticels are
(1)exchange of gases
(2)helps in transpiration
(3)helps in vegetative reproduction
(4)Both a and b
15.
Slime moulds are/have
(1) Saprophytes
(2) Plasmodium under unfavorable conditions
(3) No walls in spores
(4) More than one option is correct
16.
How many of the following cell organelles are not present in prokaryotic cell?
Endoplasmic reticulum, Nucleus, lysosomes, vacuoles, ribosomes, centrioles
(1)6
(2)5
(3)4
(4)2
17.
Which of the following is true about SER (smooth endoplasmic reticulum), except
1. Ribosomes are absent
2. Actively involved in protein synthesis
3. Steroidal hormone synthesis site
4. Both A and C
18.
Which of the following is true about nucleolus?
(1)membrane less structure
(2)active site for rRNA synthesis
(3)numerous in cells which are involved in protein synthesis
(4)All of the above
19.
Plasmodesmata connections help in
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming
(2) Mitotic division
(3) Movement of substances between the cells
(4) Osmosis only
20.
Amount of DNA and Number of chromosomes in G2 phase of cell cycle would be
(1) Double and equal to that of in G1phase respectively
(2) Half and equal to that of in G1 phase respectively
(3) Equal and half to that of in G1phase respectively
(4) Double and double to that of in G1 phase respectively
21.
By a particular interaction in a population, one species was harmed while other was benefited. Such interaction is called as
1. Competition
2. Predation
3. Parasitism
4. Both 2 and 3
22.
Which of the following is a continuous process?
1.Cell growth(in terms of cytoplasmic increase)
2.Cell differentiation
3.DNA duplication
4.Cell division
23.
The biogas plant: wrong statement is
(1) 10-15 feet deep
(2) In which bio-wastes are collected and slurry of dung is fed
(3) Has a fixed lid
(4) Has an outlet
24.
David Tilman actually proposed that
1. | The long term ecosystem experiments using out door plots with less species showed less year to year variation in total number |
2. | The long term ecosystem experiments using out door plots with more species showed less year to year variation in total biomass |
3. | The long term ecosystem experiments using out door plots with more species showed more year to year variation in total number |
4. | The long term ecosystem experiments using indoor plots with less species showed less year to year variation in total biomass |
25.
Which of the following is not correct about Fragmentation?
(1) Large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various human activities
(2) Mammals and birds are affected by fragmentation as they need large territory
(3) Certain animals with migratory habits are badly affected leading to population decline
(4) The main reason for the cause of fragmentation is soya bean cultivation
26.
The first step of decarboxylation in cellular respiration is
(1) Conversion of PGAL to DHAP
(2) Conversion of PGAL to PGA
(3) Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
(4) Conversion of BPGA to PGA
27.
Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because
1. Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
2. The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
3. The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
4. The genetic code is universal
28.
Bolting is
1.Internode elongation just prior to flowering
2.Internode elongation just after flowering
3.Reduction in stem length just prior to flowering
4.Reduction in stem length just after flowering
29.
Sexual reproduction in chlorophyceae is of
(1) Isogamous type
(2) Anisogamous type
(3) Oogamous type
(4) All of these
30.
Actinomorphic flower
(1) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in a single plane
(2) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane
(3) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in a vertical plane
(4) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in a single radial plane
31.
Examine the figure given below and select the wrong option
1. A - Present in only grana lamellae.
2. B - involves down hill movement of electron in terms of oxidation reduction potential .
3. C - Absorbs 700 nm light.
4. The electrons return back to the reaction center.
32.
Majority of plants:
1. | Use abiotic agents for pollination |
2. | Use biotic agents for pollination |
3. | Do not use any agent for pollination |
4. | Use both abiotic and biotic agents for pollination. |
33.
What is applicable to both Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome?
I. | They result from the non-disjunction of sex chromosomes during gamete formation |
II. | They can be identified by a karyotype |
III. | They have 44 autosomes |
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
34.
Identifying all the genes in the genome that are transcribed into RNA is called:
1. | Expressed Sequence Tag | 2. | Sequence Annotation |
3. | Inverse PCR | 4. | Retrotransposition |
35.
Each pole receives half the chromosome number of the
parent cell, is true for which stage?
1. Anaphase - II
2. Anaphase - I
3. Telophase-I
4. Telophase-II
Botany - Section B
36.
Which of the following is not true for three domain
system?
1. Divides kingdom monera into two domains.
2. Third domain includes all eukaryotic organisms.
3. It resulted in six kingdom classifications.
4. It is not phylogenetic.
37.
In pear, cashew-nut and strawberry plants :
1. Simple dry fruits are present
2. True fruits are present
3. Aggregate fruits are present
4. Edible part of the fruit is fleshy thalamus
38.
In the seeds of maize, the seed coat
1. Is fused with the pericarp
2. Store aleurone grains
3. Is membranous and triploid
4. Has an outgrowth, called strophiole
39.
Lichens are mutually useful associations between
1. Autotrophic and heterotrophic members
2. Two autotrophic partners
3. Two heterotrophic partners
4. Fungi and roots of higher plants
40.
The quality of light to which seeds are exposed last, determine seed germination. Which of the following is incorrect? [R – Red; FR – Far red]
1. R + Dark ……. germination
2. R + FR ….. no germination
3. R + FR + R ….. no germination
4. R + FR + R + FR….. no germination
41.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Baculoviruses:
(1) They are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods.
(2) Majority of them belong to the genus Nucleopolyhederovirus.
(3) They are used for broad-spectrum and generalized insecticidal applications.
(4) They have no negative effect on humans, plants and birds.
42.
Consider the following two statements:
I. The length of food chains in an ecosystem is generally limited to to3−4trophic levels.
II. The amount of energy flow decreases with successive trophic levels.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect butIIis correct
43.
Single turn of citric acid cycle yeilds:
1.2 FADH2, 2NADH2, 2GTP
2. 1 FADH2, 2NADH2, 1GTP
3. 1 FADH2, 3NADH2, 1GTP
4. 1 FADH2, 4NADH2, 1GTP
44.
The total number and types of organisms on earth represents the
1. Taxonomy
2. Biodiversity
3. Classification
4. Systematics
45.
Which of the given hormone is an adenine derivative?
1. IAA
2. GA3
3. Zeatin
4. ABA
46. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column II regarding C4 plants and select the correct match from the codes given:
COLUMN I | COLUMN II | ||
A | Primary acceptor of carbon dioxide | P | RuBP |
B | Cells in which Calvin cycle takes place | Q | PEP |
C | Primary carbon dioxide fixation product | R | Bundle sheath |
D | Example | S | Mesophyll |
T | PGA | ||
U | OAA | ||
V | Sorghum | ||
W | Wheat |
Codes:
A | B | C | D | |
1. | Q | S | U | V |
2. | P | S | T | W |
3. | Q | R | U | V |
4. | P | R | T | W |
47. Regarding pollen grains:
I. | Exine is made up of sporopollenin |
II. | Generative cell is bigger than the vegetative cell |
III. | Generative cell divides meiotically to produce male gametes |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II is correct
4. I, II and III are correct
48. Mineralisation differs from leaching as in former
1. | Humus is degraded by microbes to release inorganic nutrients whereas in later water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon. |
2. | Detritus is broken down whereas in later humus is degraded |
3. | Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down in soil and in later detritus is degraded by detrivores |
4. | Humus becomes colloidal and in later humus becomes detritus. |
49. How many NADH molecules will be synthesized during glycolysis, if 25 molecules of sucrose are utilized?
1. 50
2. 100
3. 25
4. 200
50. The integral form of exponential growth equation will be
1.\(N_0 = N_t e^{rt}\)
2.\(N_t - N_0 =e^{rt}\)
3. \(N_t = N_0 e^{rt}\)
4.\({N_t \over N_0}= {1 \over e^{rt}}\)
Zoology - Section A
51.
Darwin's finches are an excellent example of
1. adaptive radiation
2. seasonal migration
3. brood parasitism
4. connecting links
52.
Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
(1) Kangaroo
(2) Platypus
(3) Penguin
(4) Whale
53.
Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre medulla is affected by
1. less CO2 and H+ ions
2. less O2 and H+ ions
3. excess CO2 and H+ ions
4. excess O2 and H+ ions.
54.
A gland called ‘Clock of ageing’ that gradually reduces and degenerates in ageing is
1. thyroid
2. thymus
3. parathyroid
4. pituitary
55.
In the below diagram of areolar connective tissue, the different cells and parts have been indicated by alphabets.
Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts and cells they indicate:
A | B | C | D | |
(1) | Adipocyte | Collagen fibres | Microfilament | Mast cells |
(2) | Macrophage | Collagen fibres | Microfilament | Mast cells |
(3) | Macrophage | Collagen fibres | Microtubule | RBC |
(4) | Macrophage | Fibroblast | Collagen fibres | Mast cells |
56.
Which among the following has been mismatched?
(1) Cartilage- specialised connective tissue
(2) Areolar tissue- loose connective tissue
(3) Bone- dense connective tissue
(4) Blood- fluid connective tissue
57.
Bryophytes evolved from
(1) Psilophyton
(2) Rhynia type plants
(3) Tracheophyte ancestors
(4) Chlorophyte ancestors
58.
Ootid is formed along with
(1) Ovum
(2) Second polar body
(3) Secondary oocyte
(4) Primary oocyte
59.
Which of the following can be a result of drug or alcohol abuse?
1. Coma and death due to failure of Heart
2. Reckless behavior, vandalism, and violence
3. A combination of drugs and alcohol lead to overdosing and then to death
4. All of these
60.
The Agitation system of bioreactor has
1. Flat bladed impeller
2. Sharp impellers
3. Foam breaker
4. Steamer
61.
The amount of filtrate formed by kidneys is
1. 125 mL/ minute
2. 180 L/ hr
3. 125L/day
4. 180mL/ second
62.
How many ribs are indirectly attached to sternum?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 9
63.
Which of the following functions is not associated with Hypothalamus?
(1) Control body temperature
(2) Urge for eating and drinking
(3) Release a lot of hypothalamic hormones
(4) Memory
64.
Limbic lobe or limbic system does not has
(1) Amygdala
(2) Hippocampus
(3) Inner parts of cerebral hemisphere
(4) Pons
65.
Which area actually secretes renin into the blood?
1. macula densa
2. juxtaglomerular apparatus
3. juxtaglomerular cells
4. cortical nephron
66.
Which of the following is a storage and release center for neurohormones?
1. Anterior pituitary
2. Posterior pituitary
3. Adrenal medulla
4. Pineal
67.
Nucleotide is made up of
1. Heterocyclic compound, Monosaccharide, Phosphoric acid.
2. Nitrogenous base, hexose sugar, phosphate.
3. Heterocyclic compound and pentose sugar only.
4. Heterocyclic compound and nucleoside.
68.
Cellular oncogenes can be best explained as
1. Mutated gene.
2. Present in normal cells.
3. Present only in the cells of benign tumour.
4. Genes due to which cells loose the property of contact inhibition.
69.
How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
1. By adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines.
2. By reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds.
3. By adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA.
4. By forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching.
70.
Which of the following is incorrect.
1.Nucleotides- Nucleosides = phosphate
2.Nucleosides + Phosphate = Nucleotides
3.Nucleosides – Nucleotides = Phosphate
4.Both 1 and 2
71.
The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person, are foundin:
1. liver of the person
2. RBCs of mosquito
3. salivary glands of the mosquito
4. gut of the mosquito
72.
Which of the following hormone is secreted from the intestinal mucosa and stimulates the release of enzymes in the pancreatic juice?
1. Secretin
2. Cholecystokinin
3. Erterocrinin
4. Duocrinin
73.
Mark the correct statement
1. The cycle of events starting from one menstruation till the next one is menarche
2. Primary oocyte within the secondary follicle grows in size and complete its first meiotic division
3. Secondary oocyte froms a new membrane called zona pellucida surrounding it
4. Secondary follicle is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum
74.
AIDS occurs due to
1 Reduction in number of helper T-cells
2 Reduction in number of killer T-cells
3 Autoimmunity
4 Non-production of interferons
75.
Find the incorrect statement
(1) In gel electrophoresis, the undigested DNA fragment is likely to move through least distance
(2) Any piece of DNA when linked to ori site sequence can be made to replicate within host cells
(3) Restriction endonuclease break the bond between pentose sugar and nitrogenous base in DNA
(4) Bt cotton is pest-resistant variety of cotton developed by genetic engineering
76.
Which of the following is correct matching of phylum, its coelom and distinctive features?
77.
Amino acids differ from each other mainly at R group. If R group of proteinaceous amino acid is hydroxy methyl, the amino acid would be
1. Glycine
2. Alanine
3. Serine
4. Tyrosine
78.
Mark wrong set of comparison between chordates and non-chordates
Chordates | Non-chordates |
1. Notochord present | Notochord absent |
2. CNS is dorsal hollow and single | CNS is ventral, solid and double |
3. Gill slits present | Gill slits absent |
4. Heart is dorsal | Heart is ventral |
79.
The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle
1. ls associated with dropping levels of estrogen and progesterone
2. ls when the endometrium begins to degenerate and menstrual flow occurs
3. Corresponds with the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
4. Corresponds with the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
80.
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to transportation of gases?
A. Blood transportcomparatively easily because of its higher solubility
B.diffuses into blood, passes into RBCs and reacts with water to form
C. 20-25 percent is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin
D. Oxyhaemoglobin of erythrocytes is basic in nature and it increases pH of blood
1. A only
2. A & B only
3. A, B & C only
4. A, B, C & D
81.
ELISA is based on the principle of:
1. | Complementary base pairing between nucleic acid strands |
2. | Antigen-antibody interaction |
3. | Movement of different proteins under an electric field |
4. | Amplification of DNA in a sample |
82.
All of the following are parts of the forebrain, except
1. Cerebellum
2. Corpus callosum
3. Association areas
4. Hypothalamus
83.
The four sketches (A, B, C, and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?
Tissue | Location | Function | ||
1. | (C) | Collagen fibres | Cartilage | Attach skeletal muscles to bones |
2. | (D) | Smooth muscle tissue | Heart | Heart contraction |
3. | (A) | Columnar epithelium | Nephron | Secretion and absorption |
4. | (B) | Glandular epithelium | Intestine | Secretion |
84. A woman is 20 weeks pregnant but due to some unforeseen circ*mstances is in a need of an MTP.
Select the incorrect statement from the following regarding the procedure, validity, and requirements for this MTP:
1. | It is valid if the unborn child has a risk of physical or mental abnormalities. |
2. | Needs the opinion and go ahead from only one registered medical practitioner. |
3. | It is valid if the pregnant woman is at risk of a grave physical injury |
4. | It helps in reducing maternal mortality and morbidity if the continuation of pregnancy can cause harm to the mother. |
85. How many of the following methods from the box can be included under the test tube baby programme?
ZIFT, IUT, AI, ICSI, GIFT, IUI
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Zoology - Section B
86. Select unpaired bones among the following:
(a) Occipital
(b) Parietal
(c) Ethmoid
(d) Sphenoid
(e) Maxilla
1. a, b and c
2. b, c and d
3. a, c and e
4. a, c and d
87. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics:
Blood cell | Characteristics | |
1. | Basophils | Secreteserotonin |
2. | B-lymphocytes | formabout 20% of blood cells involved in immune response |
3. | Neutrophils | Most abundant blood cells, phagocytic |
4. | Monocytes | Life spans 3 days, produce antibodies |
88.
A: | All vertebrates are chordates and all chordates are vertebrates. |
B: | Protochordates are chordates in which vertebral column is present throughout their life. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. Both statements A and B are correct
2. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. Only statement A is correct
4. Only statement B is correct
89.
Given below are two statements:
Assertion(A): | An electrocardiograph is obtained from the machine electrocardiogram to evaluate heart function |
Reason(R): | Electrocardiograph is a graphical representation of electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle |
1. | Both(A)and(R)are true and(R)is the correct explanation of(A). |
2. | Both(A)and(R)are true but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A). |
3. | (A)is true but(R)is false. |
4. | Both(A)and(R)are false. |
90.
Given below are two statements:
Assertion(A): | Ultrafiltration of blood occurs in renal corpuscles |
Reason(R): | Blood is filtered so finely in renal corpuscles that except blood cells all constituents of plasma pass into lumen of Bowman's capsule |
1. | Both(A)and(R)are true and(R)is the correct explanation of(A). |
2. | Both(A)and(R)are true but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A). |
3. | (A)is true but(R)is false. |
4. | Both(A)and(R)are false. |
91. Choose the hormone that is secreted by the endocrine gland not located in the brain
1. Melatonin
2. Vasopressin
3. thymosin
4. Somatotropin
92. How many of the given hormones are not secreted by organised endocrine glands of our body?
PRL, T4, ANF, ADH, CCK, Testosterone,
Erythropoietin, Thymosin
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Two
93. Assertion: In 1983, Eli Lilly used E. coli, as heterologous host for the production of humulin.
Reason: Production of insulin in E. coli by genetic engineering is possible because bacterial cells can carry out the RNA splicing mechanism.
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false.
94. At a particular locus, the frequency of allele A is 0.8 and that of allele a is 0.2. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
1. 0.32
2. 0.16
3. 0.24
4. 0.48
95. Which of the following structures are actively responsible for inspiration?
1. Diaphragm exclusively
2. Internal intercostal muscles and diaphragm
3. Abdominal muscles
4. External intercostal muscles and diaphragm
96. Which of the following statements is not true about blood pressure?
1. Blood pressure is measured with an instrument called sphygmomanometer
2. If the blood pressure of an individual is 140/90 mm Hg or higher it shows hypertension
3. The normal systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg
4. Hypertension is caused by vasodilation which results in increased resistance to blood flow
97. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
1. The medullary zone of kidney is divided into few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into calyces
2. Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis
3. Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is called the renal corpuscle
4. Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron are stituated in the cortical region of kidney
98. Type of joint present between humerus and scapula is
1. Pivot joint
2. Ball and socket joint
3. Ellipsoid joint
4. Gliding joint
99. Select the incorrect statement regarding first gene therapy which was done in 1990 to cure SCID
1. A functional cDNA encoding ADA protein was introduced in lymphocytes of patient using retroviral vector.
2. Lymphocytes from blood of patients were grown in culture outside the body.
3. Genetically engineered lymphocytes remain viable in the patient throughout life
4. Periodic infusion of these genetically engineered lymphocytes is not considered as permanent cure.
100. MTPs or induced abortions are performed to get rid of unwanted pregnancy. Which of the following statements is incorrect
1. MTP was legalised by government of India in 1971
2. Involuntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical termination of pregnancy
3. They can be performed in rape cases
4. They are considered relatively safe during the first trimester
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