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Botany - Section A

1.

The following diagram can represent the position of the ovary in:

1. Brinjal
2. Guava
3. Rose
4. Mustard

2.

Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?
1. Carnivores- secondary or tertiary consumer
2. Decomposer- microbial heterotrophs
3. Herbivores - primary consumer
4. Omnivores - Molds, yeast and mushrooms

3.

Double fertilisation is exhibited by
(1) gymnosperms
(2) algae
(3) fungi
(4) angiosperms

4.

A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as
(1) polymer
(2) polypeptide
(3) okazaki fragment
(4) polysome

5.

Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is
1. about 60%
2. less than 50%
3. more than 80%
4. about 70%

6.

Study the four statements (1-4) given below and select the two correct ones out of them.
(1) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being
consumers
(2) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(3) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(4) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic
disorders
The two correct statements are
1. (2) and (3)
2. (3) and (4)
3. (1) and (4)
4. (1) and (2)

7.

ABA is involved in?
(1) shoot elongation
(2) increased cell division
(3) dormancy of seed
(4) root elongation

8.

In which of the following one may observe variation in DNA?
(1) Fragmentation
(2) Budding
(3) Amitosis
(4) mutation

9.

The first dark reaction or CO2 fixation product is-
a. 3C – Organic Acid
b. 6C – Organic Acid
c. 5C – Organic Acid
d. 1C – Organic Acid

10.

The main enzyme for DNA replication is
(1)DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(2) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(3) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(4) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

11.

SNP which is pronounced as "snips” stands for:
(1) Small nuclear protein
(2) Single nucleotide particle
(3) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(4) Small nicking points

12.

Species Diversity

1. Diversity at the level of species
2. Diversity at the level of genes within species
3. Diversity at the level of ecosystem
4. Both 1and 2

13.

The idea of Species Area Relationship was given by

(1) Edward Wilson
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) A.V. Humboldt
(4) Katherine Esau

14.

Which of the following complex is not involved in the transfer of electrons in the inner membrane but transfer of protons across the membrane to matrix?

(1) Complex I
(2) Complex II
(3) Complex III
(4) Complex V

15.

What is true for individuals of same species?
1. Live in same niche
2. Live in same habitat
3. Interbreeding
4. Live in different habitat

16.

Find the wrong match.
1.F. W. Went - Oat seedlings
2.Charles Darwin - Canary Grass
3.Francis Darwin - Canary Grass
4.E. Kurosawa- Orange

17.

Superior ovary is represented by

(1) G
(2) A bar over G
(3) A bar below G
(4) O

18.

What is the F₂ phenotypic ratio in cases of incomplete dominance?
1. 1 : 1
2. 3 : 1
3. 1 : 2 : 1
4. 1 : 1

19.

A. _______ hormone is most widely used PGR in
agriculture.
B. _______ hormone is related with Richmond Lang
effect.
A B
1. Auxin CK
2. Auxin GA
3. Ethylene CK
4. ABA CK

20.

The ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic feature of:

21.

Cleistogamous flowers are:

22.

Identify the correct statements from the given statements and choose the correct option:

23.

Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste that is due to?
1. Flavouring agent used
2. Living agent used
3. It is inherent quality
4. Arise due to molecular interaction between chemicals

24.

Statins have been commercialised as __A__ and is produced by a __B__ .
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
1. A – Blood-cholesterol lowering agents
B – Fungus
2. A – Clot busters
B – Fungus
3. A – Clot busters
B – Bacterium
4. A – Immunosuppressive agents
B – Bacterium

25.

Which of the following statements is false?
1. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell is called totipotency
2. In tissue culture, the nutrient medium must provide a carbon source such as sucrose, nitrogen source such as urea, vitamins and growth regulators like auxins, cytokinins
3. When a plant is infected with a virus, the meristem (apical and axillary) is free of virus
4. Somatic hybrids are obtained by fusing isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants

26.

Which of the following organism is common in root ecosystems and acts as an effective biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens?
1. Nucleopolyhedrovirus
2. Lady bird beetle
3. Cactoblastis
4. Trichoderma

27.

The figure below shows the chromosome segregation during germ cells formation with four stages labelled as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the right option giving all the four stages correctly identified

1. (A) Interphase (B) Metaphase-l
(C) Telophase-l (D) Anaphase-ll
2. (A)${\mathrm{G}}_1$ (B)${\mathrm{G}}_2$
(C) Anaphase-l (D) Anaphase-ll
3. (A)${\mathrm{G}}_1$ (B)${\mathrm{G}}_2$
(C) Metaphase-l (D) Anaphase-l
4. (A)${\mathrm{G}}_1$ (B)${\mathrm{G}}_2$
(C) Anaphase-l (D)Metaphase-ll

28.

All of the following statements are concerned with gemmae, except

29.

The outer layer of pollen grain in non-archegoniate spermatophytes is made up of sporopollenin. This chemical
1. Is one of the most resistant inorganic material
2. Is temperature and enzyme resistant
3. Is resistant for strong acids, not for alkali
4. Is resistant for strong alkali, not for acids

30.

Regional and local variations within each biome lead to the formation of a wide variety of:-
1. Niche
2. Population
3. Microclimate
4. Habitat

31.

In a leaf, oval cells with large intercellular spaces and radially arranged columnar cells without intercellular spaces are placed respectively towards
1. Adaxial and abaxial epidermis
2. Abaxial and adaxial epidermis
3. Abaxial and abaxial epidermis
4. Lower and abaxial epidermis

32.

Which of the following statements are true?
l.Species diversity provides stability to the ecosystem.
ll.Communities with more species tend to the more stable than those with less species.
lll.Ecosystems with higher biodiversity are more productive than ecosystems with lower biodiversity
lV.Biodiversity is not essential for the maintenance and health of ecosystems.
Choose the correct option:-
1. l, ll and lll
2. l, ll and lV
3. ll, lll and lV
4. l, ll, lll and lV

33.

Consider the given statements regarding meiotic cell division:
I. A single round of DNA replication is followed by two successive cell divisions where chromosome number is reduced only during the first but DNA content in both
II. DNA replication takes place between meiosis I and meiosis II
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

34.

Which one of the following sets of items in options 1 – 4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it?

35.

Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Botany - Section B

36.

Who, amongst the following, was the first scientist to discover that plants give off oxygen as a result of splitting water molecules during photosynthesis, not carbon dioxide molecules as thought before?

37. Identify the incorrect statement regarding primary productivity in an ecosystem?

38. In Sorghum:

39. Which of the following is a correct match between the biological name and the order of the organism?
1. hom*o sapiens – Hominidae
2. Mangifera indica - Anacardiaceae
3. Triticum aestivum - Poaceae
4. Mangifera indica - Sapindales

40. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the mode of reproduction of organisms belonging to different classes of the Kingdom Fungi?

41. Fermentation is not a waste but it serves an important purpose which is:
1. Regeneration of NAD +
2. Formation of large number of ATP
3. Evolution of oxygen
4. Complete oxidation of pyruvic acid

42. To ensure that only the desired pollens fall on the stigma in artificial hybridization process:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (a), (b) and (c) only
2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. (b), (c) and (e) only
4. (a), (d) and (e) only

43. Identify the incorrect statement.

44. Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the organelle 'A' in the diagram:

45. Select the option that does not represent the taxa at different levels
1. Chordate, Mammal, Dog
2. Animal, Insect, Butterfly
3. Plant, Monocot, Wheat
4. Mammal, Insect, Dicot

46.
Given below are two statements:

47. Which of the following plants shows zygomorphic flower with imbricate aestivation of petals?
1. Calotropis
2. Cotton
3. Datura
4. Gulmohar

48. Read the features related to the anatomical structure of a plant exhibit double fertilization
(i) It comprises a single layer
(ii) It has barrel-shaped cells with no intercellar spaces
(iii) It has Casparian strips
That structure is
1. Epidermis of monocot leaf
2. Pericycle of dicot root
3. Endodermis of monocot root
4. Endodermis of Pinus root

49. If the inner mitochondrial membrane is denatured by a poison, which of the following processes will not be affected?
1. Lactic acid fermentation
2. Electron transport system
3. Kreb's cycle
4. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate

50. Identify the stages with the help of given features (A and B).

Zoology - Section A

51.

The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. This isnecessary as:
1. The scrotum can contain lengthy ducts for thetransfer of sperms
2. Scrotum helps in maintaining the lowtemperature of the testes necessary forspermatogenesis
3. Scrotum reduces the pressure around testesnecessary for spermatogenesis
4. Scrotum can store huge amounts of sperms

52.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair :

53.

When a neuron is an resting state, ie, not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane
is
1. equally permeable to both Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
2. impermeable to both Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
3. comparatively more permeable to K⁺ ions and nearly impermeable to Na⁺ ions
4. comparatively more permeable to Na⁺ ions and nearly impermeable to K⁺ ions

54.

A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is:
1. cortisol
2. corticosterone
3. 11- deoxycorticosterone
4. cortisone

55.

Which of the following is involved in allergic reaction ?
1. IgM
2. IgM and IgG
3. IgA
4. IgE

56.

Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle?
(1) Release of egg : 5^th day
(2) Endometrium regenerates : 5 - 10 days
(3) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation : 11-18 days
(4) Rise in progesterone level : 1 - 15 days

57.

Sexual stage (gametocytes) of plasmodium occurs in
1. Salivary glands of mosquito
2. Human RBC
3. Intestine of mosquito
4. Human liver

58.

Strength to the bones is given by the hard and non-pliable ground substance composed of:
(1) Calcium salts and collagen fibres
(2) Calcium salts only
(3) Calcium and magnesium salts
(4) Elastin fibres

59.

Identify the chordates in which the notochord persists in the adult?
(1) Tunicates
(2) Lancelets
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Bony fishes

60.

Which of the following steps will be performed after restriction digestion?
1. Ligation
2. Elution from DNA gel
3. Transformation
4. Cloning

61.

For easiest cloning, one needs to get vector with
1. Single cloning site
2. Multiple cloning site
3. Few cloning site
4. No cloning site at all

62.

Biodiversity is not

(1) More in developing countries
(2) Poor in industrialised nations
(3) More in underdeveloped countries
(4) More in developed country

63.

Visceral nervous system is

(1) A part of PNS
(2) Made up of nerves, Fibres, Ganglia and Plexuses
(3) Transmit information from CNS to the viscera and viscera to CNS
(4) All of these

64.

Which of the following is not true for cerebrum?

(1) Forms the major part of the human brain
(2) A deep cleft divides transversely into two halves
(3) Cerebral hemispheres are longitudinal halves
(4) The hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum

65.

Pons connects different regions of the brain by the means of

(1) Fibre Tracts
(2) Cell bodies
(3) Dendrites
(4) Both B and C

66.

What percentage of the ventricular filling is contributed by the atrial contraction?
1. 30
2. 50
3. 70
4. 100

67.

A child, with stunted growth, mental retardation, low IQ, and deaf- mutism, is having these conditions because of

(1) hyperthyroidism
(2) hypothyroidism
(3) Cancer of thyroid gland
(4) all of these

68.

Which of the following is incorrect about catecholamines
1. increase in glucose concentration blood
2. stimulate lipids and fats breakdown
3. increase in glucose concentration in cells
4. All of these

69.

Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organizations without authorization from theconcerned country and its people is called?
1. Bio-infringement
2. Biopiracy
3. Biodegradation
4. Bio-exploitation

70.

Which one of the following is commonly used in the transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
1. Trichoderma harzianum
2. Meloidogyne incognita
3. Agro bacterium tumefaciens
4. Penicillium expansum

71.

Which of the following is not true about Cnidarians
1.Radial symmetry
2.Diploblastic
3.Tissue level of organisation
4.Deutrostomes

72.

Which of the following is true for roundworms but not true for flatworms
1.Bilateral symmetry
2.Triploblastic body plan
3.Dioecious
4.Internal Fertilastion

73.

What is the similarity between bronchi and
fallopian tube?
1. Pseudostratified epithelium
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Cuboidal epithelium
4. Columnar epithelium

74.

Which type of natural selection is illustrated by industrial melanism?
1. Directional selection
2. Balancing selection
3. Disruptive selection
4. stabilising selection

75.

An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of:
1. Competent bacterial cells
2. Transformed bacterial cells
3. Recombinant bacterial cells
4. None of the above

76.

Which of the following glands is large-sized at birth but reduces in size with aging?

77.

In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments produced by restriction enzyme digestion:

78.

The figure shows a schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.

1. A-Pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from body parts, ${\mathrm{PO}}_2$= 60 mm Hg
2. B-Pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs,${\mathrm{PO}}_2$ = 90 mm Hg
3. C-Vena Cava-takes blood from body parts to the right auricle,${\mathrm{PCO}}_2$ = 45 mm Hg
4. D-Dorsal aorta – takes blood from the heart to body parts,${\mathrm{PO}}_2$ = 95 mm Hg

79.

The function of Sertoli cells is
1. Synthesis of testosterone
2. Storage of sperms
3. Nourishment to sperms
4. Maturation of sperms

80.

About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth. What could have been the possible causes for this mass extinction?
A. Many of them evolved into birds
B. Climatic changes killed them. This was due to ice age
C. A large meteorite hit the earth
D. They were endothermal
1. D only
2. A & B
3. A, B & C
4. C & D

81.

Lecithin is a these
1. Type of wax
2. Phospholipid
3. Oil
4. Simple fatty acid

82.

As starch is related to plant body, which of the following polysaccharides is related to animal body ?
1. Cellulose
2. Chitin
3. Glycogen
4. Inulin

83.

Which of the following is a structural polysaccharide?
1. Glycogen
2. Starch
3. Inulin
4. Cellulose

84.

Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?
a. llium
b. ischium
c. Pubis
1. a & b only
2. b & c only
3. a & c only
4. a, b & c

85.

Veneral diseases can spread through:
(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. (b) and (c) only
2. (a) and (c) only
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (b), (c) and (d)

Zoology - Section B

86.

Identify the incorrect statement:

87. Consider the given two statements:

88. In a large population which is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the percentage of the hom*ozygous recessive genotype is 36%. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes?
1. 0.36
2. 0.6
3. 0.48
4. 0.16

89. Select the incorrect match:
1. Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder
2. Diabetes insipidus – Deficiency of vasopressin
3. Knee-jerk reflex – Acquired reflex
4. Osteoporosis – Decreased levels of oestrogen

90.
Given below are two statements:

91. Assertion: Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive health.
Reason: Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

92. A man underwent vasectomy few years ago. He tried to reverse it, but that was not successful. Using ART, this man and his wife are planning to have a child again. Which procedure from the given options will not be required by the couple as the woman's fertility is normal and healthy?
1. GIFT
2. AI
3, IUI
4. In-vivo fertilisation

93. The value of pCO₂ in alveolar air is
1. Equal to the value of pCO₂ in systemic veins
2. More than the value of pO₂ in systemic arteries
3. Less than the value of pO₂ in pulmonary vein
4. Equal to the value of pO₂ in pulmonary vein

94. Which of the following statements is incorrect about transport of gases in man?
1. About 97 percentage of\(O_2\)is transported by RBCs in the blood
2. 3 percent of\(O_2\)is carried in dissolved state in the plasma
3. 20-25 percent of\(CO_2\)is transported by RBCs in the form of carbaminohaemoglobin
4. 90 percent carbon dioxide is carried in dissolved state in plasma

95. Decrease in the rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac output is under the control of
1. Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves
2. Neural signals through the parasympathetic nerves
3. Adrenaline
4. ANS

96. Consider the following statements regarding double blood circulation:

Select the correct answer from the given options:
1. Only statement (A) is correct
2. Only statement (B) is correct
3. Both (A) and (B) are correct
4. Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

97. The average cardiac output in a heathy individual is
1. 1 litre
2. 3 litres
3. 5 litres
4. 10 litres

98. Select the incorrect statement:
1. Micturition is carried out by a reflex
2. ADH helps in H₂O elimination, making the urine hypotonic
3. Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman's capsule
4. Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the PCT

99. Which one is a vasoconstrictor?
1. ANF
2. Renin
3. Angiotensin-II
4. Histamine

100. Choose the option that correct identifies (a), (b), (c) and (d)

1. (a), Pubis, (b)-Humerus, (c)-Patella, (d)-Tibia
2. (a)-Coxal bone, (b)-Femur, (c)-Patella, (d)-Fibula
3. (a)-IIeum, (b)-Femur, (c)- Patella, (d)-Tibia
4. (a)-IIeum, (b)-Femur, (c)-Ligament, (d)-Tibia

Chemistry - Section A

101.

The molality of 1M solution of NaCl ( specific gravity 1.0585 g/mL ) is:
1. 1.0585
2. 1.0
3. 0.10
4. 0.0585

102.

Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
1. SO₂
2. B₂O₃
3. ZnO
4. Na₂O

103.

Which of the following pairs of carbon skeletons is an example of isomerism?
1.
2.
3.
4.

104.

The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated solution containing 6.56 X 10^-2 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the solution contains 5.00 X 10^-2 g of ethane, then what shall be the partial pressure of the gas?
1. 0.76 bar
2. 0.16 bar
3. 1.16 bar
4. 3.12 bar

105.

Which of the following is an alkoxide?
1.
2.
3.
4.

106.

The compound that generate methyl ethyl ketone upon oxidation is -
1. 2-Propanol
2. 1-Butanol
3. 2-Butanol
4. tert-Butyl alcohol

107.

A reagent suitable for the determination of N-terminal residue of a peptide is
[1996]
1. p-toluene sulphonyl chloride
2. 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
3. carboxypeptidase
4. 2,4-dinitro fluorobenzene

108.

A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous (conc.)NaOH solution gives
1. benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
2. sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
3. sodium benzoate and sodium formate
4. none of these

109.

By how much will the potential of half cell Cu²⁺| Cu change if the solution is diluted to 100 times at 298 K. It will-

110.

If atomic number of an element of He-family is Z then which of the following atomic number will highest EA?
(1) Z - 2
(2) Z - 1
(3) Z + 1
(4) Z + 2

111.

In both DNA and RNA heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at:
1. \(C^1_5\)and\(C^1_2\)respectively of the sugar molecule.
2. \(C^1_2\)and\(C^1_5\)respectively of the sugar molecule.
3. \(C^1_1\)and\(C^1_5\)respectively of the sugar molecule.
4. \(C^1_5\)and\(C^1_1\)respectively of the sugar molecule.

112.

Who pointed out the concept of hyperconjugation?
(1) Nathan and Baker
(2) Mulliken
(3) Kekule
(4) Kolbe

113.

Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction.
H₃C-C$\equiv$CH$\underset{{\mathrm{HgSO}}_4}{\overset{{\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O},}{\to }}$${\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4$Intermediate$\to$Product
(A) (B)

114.

Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
${\mathrm{X}}_2+{\mathrm{Y}}_2\stackrel{}{\to }2\mathrm{XY}$is given below
(i)${\mathrm{X}}_2\stackrel{}{\rightleftharpoons }\mathrm{X}+\mathrm{X}\left(\mathrm{fast}\right)$
(ii)$\mathrm{X}+{\mathrm{Y}}_2\stackrel{}{\to }\mathrm{XY}+\mathrm{Y}\left(\mathrm{slowest}\right)$
(iii)$\mathrm{X}+\mathrm{Y}\stackrel{}{\to }\mathrm{XY}\left(\mathrm{fast}\right)$
The overall order of the reaction will be
1. 1
2. 2
3. 0
4. 1.5

115.

The correct electronic configuration of Gadolinium(Atomic number = 64) is :
1. [Xe]4f⁸6d²
2. [Xe]4f⁹5s¹
3. [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s²
4. [Xe]4f⁶5d²6s²

116.

Among the following complexes, the one which shows zero crystal field stabilisation
energy (CFSE) is:-
1. [Mn(H₂O)6]³⁺
2. [Fe(H₂O)6]³⁺
3. [Co(H₂O)6]²⁺
4. [Co(H₂O)6]³⁺

117.

Of the following complex ions, the diamagnetic complex is:
1. [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
2. [CuCl₄]^2-
3. [CoF₆]^3-
4. [NiCl₄]^2-

118.

If ΔH is the change in enthalpy and ΔE the change in internal energy accompanying a gaseous reaction
(1) ΔH is always greater than ΔE
(2) ΔH < ΔE only if the number of moles of the products is greater than the number of the reactants
(3) ΔH is always less than ΔE
(4) ΔH < ΔE only if the number of moles of the products is less than the number of moles of the reactants

119.

What is the oxidation number of sulphur in $N{a}_2{S}_4{O}_6$-
(1) $\frac{2}{3}$
(2) $\frac{3}{2}$
(3) $\frac{3}{5}$
(4) $\frac{5}{2}$

120.

For the redox reaction $Mn{O}_4^{-}+C_2{O}_4^{-2}+H^{+}\to M{n}^{2+}+C{O}_2+H_{2}O$ the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are

121.

The molecular geometry that is least likely to result from a trigonal bipyramidal electron geometry is:

122.

Propadiene,$C_3{H}_4$ molecule contains –
1. Two $s{p}^2$and one sp hybrid carbon
2. One$s{p}^2$ and two sp hybrid carbons
3. One $s{p}^2$ and three sp hybrid carbons
4. None of the above

123.

The half-life for radioactive decay of${}^{14}C$ is 5730 y. An archaeological artifact containing wood had only 80 % ofthe${}^{14}C$ found in a living tree.The age of the sample will be:
1. 1657.3 y
2. 1845.4 y
3. 1512.4 y
4. 1413.1 y

124.

Following reaction occurs at${25}^{\circ }C$:
$2NO\left(g,1\times {10}^{-5}atm\right)+C{l}_2\left(g,1\times {10}^{-2}atm\right)\rightleftharpoons 2NOCl\left(g,1\times {10}^{-2}atm\right)∆G^{\circ }$is-
1. -45.65 kJ
2. -28.53 kJ
3. -22.82 kJ
4. -57.06 kJ

125.

Which is not true according to VBT-
1. A covalent bond is formed by the overlapping of orbitals with unpaired electrons of opposite spins.
2.A covalent bond is formed by the overlapping of orbitals with unpaired electrons of same spin.
3. The greater the extent of overlapping the stronger is the bond.
4. Overlapping takes place only in the direction of maximum electron density of the orbital.

126.

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound.
If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is$1{\mathrm{s}}^{2}2{\mathrm{s}}^{2}2{\mathrm{p}}^3$,
the simplest formula for this compound is:
1. ${\mathrm{Mg}}_2{\mathrm{X}}_3$
2. ${\mathrm{MgX}}_2$
3.${\mathrm{Mg}}_2\mathrm{X}$
4. ${\mathrm{Mg}}_3{\mathrm{X}}_2$

127.

The correct order of atomic radii of the group 13 elements is-
1. B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
2. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
3. B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
4. B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

128.

The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic no. 64), and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are, respectively:

1. [Xe] 4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s², and [Xe] 4f⁹6s²
2. [Xe] 4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe] 4f⁷5d¹ 6s², and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²
3. [Xe] 4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁷ 5d¹6s², and [Xe] 4f⁹6s²
4. [Xe] 4f⁷6s², (Xe]4f⁸6s², and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²

129.

Match the compounds given in Column I with the shape given in Column II and mark the correct option.

130.

Aninsoluble biomolecule in water is-

131.

0.8 mole of a mixture of CO and CO₂ requires exactly 40 gram of NaOH in solution for complete conversion of all the CO₂ into Na₂CO₃. How many moles more of NaOH would it require for conversion into Na₂CO₃, if mixture (0.8 mole) is completely oxidised to CO₂?
1. 0.2
2. 0.6
3. 1
4. 1.5

132.

The excited state of an H atom emits a photon of wavelength$\mathrm{\lambda }$and returns to the ground state. The principal quantum number of the excited state is given by:
1.$\sqrt{\mathrm{\lambda R}\left(\mathrm{\lambda R}-1\right)}$
2.$\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{\lambda R}}{\left(\mathrm{\lambda R}-1\right)}}$
3.$\sqrt{\mathrm{\lambda R}\left(\mathrm{\lambda R}+1\right)}$
4.$\sqrt{\frac{\left(\mathrm{\lambda R}-1\right)}{\mathrm{\lambda R}}}$

133.

Identify the set of reagent and reaction conditions 'X' and 'Y' in the following set of transformations,
${\mathrm{CH}}_3-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{Br}\stackrel{\mathrm{x}}{\to }\mathrm{Product}\stackrel{\mathrm{y}}{\to }{\mathrm{CH}}_3-\underset{\mathrm{Br}}{\underset{|}{\mathrm{CH}}}-{\mathrm{CH}}_3$

134.

The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/Cu is + 0.34V. What will be the reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple, K_sp of Cu(OH)₂ is 1.0 × 10^–19
1. – 3.2013
2. – 0.2205
3. – 0.913
4. – 1.23

135.

Calculate the molal depression constant of a solvent which has freezing point 16.6⁰ andlatent heat of fusion 43 calories.
1. 3.3
2. 3.86
3. 2.9
4. 38.6

Chemistry - Section B

136.

Ether is more volatilethan alcohol despite having the same molecular formula. This is due to -
1. Dipolar character of ethers
2. Alcohols having resonance structures
3. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
4. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols

137.

Conc.$HN{O}_3$can be stored in a container of:
(1) Cu
(2) Al
(3) Zn
(4) Sn

138.

Among i. [Co(NH₃)₆]CI₃ , ii. [Ni(NH₃)₆]CI₂ , iii. Cr(H₂O)₆]CI₃ , iv. [Fe(H₂O)₆]CI₂, the diamagnetic complex is-
1. i
2. ii
3. iii
4. iv

139.

The maximum work done in expanding 16g ${\mathrm{O}}_2$isothermally at 300 K and occupying a volume of 5 dm³until the volume becomes 25 dm³is-
1. –2.01$\times {10}^3$J
2. 2.01×${10}^{-3}$J
3. +2.81$\times {10}^3$J
4. +2.01$\times {10}^{-6}$J

140.

The reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as:
1. Cannizzaro's reaction
2. Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
3. Cross aldol condensation
4. Aldol condensation

141.

The number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum number l = 1 and 2 for Cr ₂₄ in ground state is
1. 16 and 5
2. 12 and 5
3. 16 and 4
4. 12 and 4

142.

In which of the following case, the value ofK_pis less thanK_c?
1.${\mathrm{N}}_2+{\mathrm{O}}_2\rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{NO}$
2.${\mathrm{H}}_2+{\mathrm{Cl}}_2\rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{HCl}$
3.$2{\mathrm{SO}}_2+{\mathrm{O}}_2\rightleftharpoons 2{\mathrm{SO}}_3$
4.${\mathrm{PCl}}_5\rightleftharpoons {\mathrm{PCl}}_3+{\mathrm{Cl}}_2$

143.

A base dissolved in water yields a solution with a hydroxyl ion concentration of 0.05 mol litre^-1. The solution is
1. basic
2. acid
3. neutral
4. either 2 or 3

144.

Which of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure
1. [Ni(CN${}_4$)]${}^{2-}$
2. SF${}_4$
3.${{\mathrm{BF}}_4}^{-}$
4. XeF${}_4$

145.

Which of the following amines doesn't give the carbylamine reaction?

146.

Benzoyl chloride can be prepared from benzoic acid by reacing the former with:
1.Cl₂, hv
2. SO₂
3.SOCl₂
4.Cl₂, H₂O

147.

What results from an alkyl halide's reaction with RCOOAg?

148.

Toluene refluxed withBr₂in the presence of lightgenerates mainly:
1. p-Bromotoluene.
2. Benzyl bromide.
3. o-Bromotoluene.
4. Mixture of o- and p-bromotoluene.

149. Which gas(es) is/are responsible for the reddish-brown fumes?
1. Nitrogen dioxide
2. Br₂
3. Nitric oxide
4. Both (1) and (2)

150. The colour of the precipitate of AgCl formed on the mixing of NaCl with AgNO₃is:
1. White
2. Green
3. Pink
4. Orange

Physics - Section A

151.

If energy (E), velocity (v) and force (F) be taken as fundamental quantity, then what are the dimensions of mass
(1) $E{v}^2$
(2) $E{v}^{-2}$
(3) $F{v}^{-1}$
(4) $F{v}^{-2}$

152.

Choose the correct match
(1) (i) G, (ii) H, (iii) I, (iv) B, (v) C
(2) (i) D, (ii) H, (iii) I, (iv) B, (v) G
(3) (i) G, (ii) H, (iii) I, (iv) B, (v) G
(4) None of the above

153.

If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 2t²) m/s, then the average acceleration of the particle between 2sec and 5sec is:
(1) 2 m/s²
(2) 4 m/s²
(3) 12 m/s²
(4) 14 m/s²

154.

An electric wire of length ‘I’ and area of cross-section a has a resistance R ohms. Another wire of the same material having the same length and area of cross-section 4a has a resistance of :
(1) 4R
(2) R/4
(3) R/16
(4) 16R

155.

If the length of the potentiometer wire is increased, then the length of the previously obtained balance point will :
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Become two times

156.

The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
(1) Zero
(2) Very low
(3) Very large
(4) Infinite

157.

Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The resulting lines of force should be sketched as in
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

158.

Two bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ have equal kinetic energies. If p₁ and p₂ are their respective momentum, then ratio p₁ : p₂ is equal to
(1) $m_1:m_2$
(2) $m_2:m_1$
(3) $\sqrt{m_1}:\sqrt{m_2}$
(4) $m_1^2:m_2^2$

159.

Two charges q₁ and q₂ are placed 30 cm apart, as shown in the figure. A third charge q₃ is moved along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the potential energy of the system is $\frac{q_3}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0}k$, where k is:

160.

An electron and a proton with equal momentum enter perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic field, then :
(1) The path of proton shall be more curved than that of electron
(2) The path of proton shall be less curved than that of electron
(3) Both are equally curved
(4) Path of both will be a straight line

161.

When a body is taken from the equator to the poles, its weight
(1) Remains constant
(2) Increases
(3) Decreases
(4) Increases at N-pole and decreases at S-pole

162.

The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is subjected to uniform pressure P, the fractional decrease in radius will be:
1.$\frac{P}{B}$
2.$\frac{B}{3P}$
3.$\frac{\mathrm{3P}}{B}$
4.$\frac{P}{3B}$

163.

Which of the following statements is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
1. Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and the same time
2. The energy in an electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
3. Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave
4. These waves do not require any material medium for propagation

164.

The dependence of acceleration due to gravity g on the distance r from the centre of the earth assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform density is as shown in the figure below -

(1) (2)


(3) (4)
The correct figure is
(a) (1) (b) (3)
(c) (2) (d) (4)

165.

The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 16 J when it is in its mean position. If the amplitude of oscillations is 25 cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12 kg, the time period of its oscillation is -
(1)$\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{5}sec$
(2)$2\mathrm{\pi }\sec$
(3)$20\mathrm{\pi }\sec$
(4)$5\mathrm{\pi }\sec$

166.

The extension of a wire by the application of load is 3 mm. The extension in a wire of the same material and length but half the radius by the same load is -
(1) 12 mm
(2) 0.75 mm
(3) 15mm
(4) 6 mm

167.

A particle of mass m oscillates with simple harmonic motionbetween points $x_1$and$x_2$ , the equilibrium position being O. Its potential energy is plotted. It will be as given below in the graph
1.
2.
3.
4.

168.

The combined capacity of the parallel combination of two capacitors is four times their combined capacity when connected in series. This means that
(1) Their capacities are equal
(2) Their capacities are 1 μF and 2 μF
(3) Their capacities are 0.5 μF and 1 μF
(4) Their capacities are infinite

169.

According to Bernoulli's equation
$\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{\rho g}}+\mathrm{h}+\frac{1}{2}\frac{{\mathrm{v}}^2}{\mathrm{g}}=\mathrm{constant}$
The terms A, B and C are generally called respectively:
1. Gravitational head, pressure head and velocity head
2. Gravity, gravitational head and velocity head
3. Pressure head, gravitational head and velocity head
4. Gravity, pressure and velocity head

170.

What will be the angular width of central maxima in Fraunhoffer diffraction when light of wavelength $6000\AA$ is used and slit width is 12×10^–5 cm
(1) 2 rad
(2) 3 rad
(3) 1 rad
(4) 8 rad

171.

The electrical resistance of depletion layer is large because:
1. It has no charge carriers
2. It has a large number of charge carriers
3. It contains electrons as charge carriers
4. It has holes as charge carriers

172.

A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between two atoms having a distance 1.21 Å between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is :
1. 1.21 Å
2. 2.42 Å
3. 6.05 Å
4. 3.63 Å

173.

A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency f₀ in air. The tube is dipped vertically into water such that half of its length is inside water. The fundamental frequency of the air column now is
1. 3 f₀/4
2.f₀
3.f₀/2
4. 2 f₀

174.

A particle which has zero rest mass and non-zero energy and momentum must travel with a speed:

175.

A wall has two layers A and B made of different materials. The thickness of both the layers is the same. The thermal conductivity of A and B are${\mathrm{K}}_{\mathrm{A}}$ and${\mathrm{K}}_{\mathrm{B}}$ such that ${\mathrm{K}}_{\mathrm{A}}$= 3${\mathrm{K}}_{\mathrm{B}}$. The temperature across the wall is 20°C. In thermal equilibrium
(1) The temperature difference across A = 15°C
(2) The temperature difference across A = 5°C
(3) The temperature difference across A is 10°C
(4) The rate of transfer of heat through A is more than that through B.

176.

Two identical objects A and B are at temperatures${\mathrm{T}}_{\mathrm{A}}$ and${\mathrm{T}}_{\mathrm{B}}$ respectively. Both objects are placed in a room with perfectly absorbing walls maintained at temperatures T(${\mathrm{T}}_{\mathrm{A}}$>T>${\mathrm{T}}_{\mathrm{B}}$). The objects A and B attain temperature T eventually. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(1) ‘A’ only emits radiations while B only absorbs them until both attain temperature
(2) A loses more radiations than it absorbs while B absorbs more radiations than it emits until temperature T is attained
(3) Both A and B only absorb radiations until they attain temperature T
(4) Both A and B only emit radiations until they attain temperature T

177.

In the following transitions, which one has higher frequency
(1) 3 – 2
(2) 4 – 3
(3) 4 – 2
(4) 3 – 1

178.

The number of neutrons released when${}_{92}\mathrm{U}_{235}$ undergoes fission by absorbing${}_0{}^1\mathrm{n}$ and $\left({}_{56}{}^{144}\mathrm{Ba}+{}_{36}{}^{89}\mathrm{Kr}\right)$are formed, is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

179.

The absolute temperature of a gas is determined by
1. The average momentum of the molecules
2. The velocity of sound in the gas
3. The number of molecules in the gas
4. The mean square velocity of the molecules

180.

If \(M(A,~Z)\),\(M_p\)${}_{}$, and\(M_n\)denote the masses of the nucleus\(^{A}_{Z}X,\)proton, and neutron respectively in units of \(u\) (\(1~u=931.5~\text{MeV/c}^2\))and representit* binding energy \((BE)\) in \(\text{MeV}\). Then:

181.

When an object is shot from the bottom of a long, smooth inclined plane kept at an angle of \(60^\circ\)$$with horizontal, it can travel a distance\(x_1\)along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to \(30^\circ\)$$and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel\(x_2\)distance. Then\(x_1:x_2\)will be:
1.\(1:2\sqrt{3}\)
2.\(1:\sqrt{2}\)
3.\(\sqrt{2}:1\)
4.\(1:\sqrt{3}\)

182.

A gas is compressed from a volume of$2{\mathrm{m}}^3$to a volume of$1{\mathrm{m}}^3$at constant pressure of 100 N/${\mathrm{m}}^2$. Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a result, the internal energy of the gas :
1. increases by 250 J
2. decreases by 250 J
3. increases by 50 J
4. decreases by 50 J

183.

One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel to double its pressure at room temperature,$27°C$.The work done on the gas will be:
(1) 300R
(2) 300R$\ln \left(6\right)$
(3) 300R$\ln \left(2\right)$
(4) 300R$\ln \left(7\right)$

184.

The relationship y =$\frac{3}{\mathrm{x}}$is best represented as
1.
2.
3.
4.

185.

If input frequency is 50Hz, then ripple frequency of a half-wave rectifier will be equal to-
1. 100 Hz
2. 50 Hz
3. 25 Hz
4. Data is insufficient

Physics - Section B

186.

A small source of light is \(2\) m below the surface of a liquid of refractive index\(\frac{5}{3}.\)In order to block all the light coming out of the liquid surface, the minimum diameter of the displaced on the surface of the liquid is:
1.3m
2.4m
3.6m
4.1.5m

187.

Minimum distance between real object and image produced by a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm is:
(1) 80 cm
(2) zero
(3) 20 cm
(4) 40 cm

188.

Two bar magnets are held together tightly in a vibration magnetometer. When their like poles are together, they make 20 oscillations per minute and when their unlike poles are together, they make 8 oscillations per minute. The ratio of the magnetic dipole moments of two bar magnets is:
1. 29:21
2. 6:15
3. 1:6
4. 25:4

189.

The magnetization of a piece of iron or steel:

190.

In the LCR series A.C. circuit, as we vary the frequency of A.C. source, peak current is obtained. The value of this peak current, apart from the supply voltage, depends upon (symbols have their usual meaning)
1. L and R
2. L and C
3. R and C
4. R only

191.

Two rails of a railway track insulated from each other on the ground are connected to a millivoltmeter. The reading of millivoltmeter when the train travels at a speed of 20m/s along the track is (Given: B_v = 0.2$\times$10^-4 Wb/m² and distance between the rails is 1m)
1. 10 mV
2. 0.4 mV
3. 40 mV
4. 4 mV

192.

Charge distribution at three vertices of an equilateral of side is shown in the figure. The net electric dipole moment of the system is

1.$2\sqrt{3}qa\hat{j}$
2.$-2\sqrt{3}qa\hat{j}$
3.$2\sqrt{3}qa\hat{j}+2\sqrt{3}qa\hat{j}$
4.$-2\sqrt{3}qa\hat{j}-2\sqrt{3}qa\hat{j}$

193.

A ladder rests against a smooth vertical wall as shown in the figure. The floor is also smooth. The mass of the ladder is 75 kg. If upper-end A is moving with velocity v vertically downward, then the horizontal velocity of lower end B is :

1. v
2.$\frac{3}{4}\mathrm{v}$
3.$\frac{4}{3}\mathrm{v}$
4.$\frac{3}{5}\mathrm{v}$

194.

A projectile thrown at an angle 30° with horizontalfrom the level ground reaches a maximum height of 20 m. What will be the maximum height if it is thrown at an angle 60° with the same speed?
(1) 20 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 60 m

195.

A man wants to cross a river of width 500 m in theminimum distance. The rowing speed of man relative to water is 3 km/h and river flows with speed 2 km/h. The time taken by the man to cross the river
(1) 2$\sqrt{6}$ minute
(2) 6$\sqrt{3}$ minute
(3) 2$\sqrt{5}$ minute
(4) 6$\sqrt{5}$ minute

196.

A metal sphere is suspended from a wall by a string. The forces acting on the sphere are shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
$\mathrm{}$

197.

A water pump rated 400 W has an efficiency of 75%. If it is employed to raise water to a height of 40 m, then the volume of water drawn in 10 min is:

198.

In the circuit shown, the value of RMS current is 11 A. The potential difference across the inductor is:

1. 220 V
2. zero
3. 300 V
4. 200 V

199.

The volume flow rate of water flowing out of a tubewell is given by$\mathrm{Q}=(3{\mathrm{t}}^2-4\mathrm{t}\hspace{0.17em}+1){\mathrm{m}}^3/\sec$.What volume of water will flow out of the tubewell in the third second if the volume flow rate is defined as Q =$\frac{\mathrm{dV}}{\mathrm{dt}}$?
1. 10${\mathrm{m}}^3$
2. 17${\mathrm{m}}^3$
3. 36${\mathrm{m}}^3$
4. 34${\mathrm{m}}^3$

200.

A body is projected vertically upward with a speed 40 m/s. The distance travelled by the body in the last second of the upward journey is [take g = 9.8m/s² and neglect effect of air resistance]
(1) 4.9 m
(2) 9.8 m
(3) 12.4 m
(4) 19.6 m

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